Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking (DCICN) v6.2: 200-150 exam. Share the latest 200-150 dumps and Practice test questions for free. Real and effective exam questions and answers. 200-150 pdf online Download, 200-150 YouTube video online learning to improve skills!
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Latest effective Cisco 200-150 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)
A. regular fromat WWNs are being used
B. the command show flogl database was run
C. the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run
D. registered name formate WWNs are being used
E. extended format WWNs are being used.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3
Which advantage does the bidirectional Cisco QSFP 40-GBPs BiDi transceiver provide?
A. It supports a breakout connection with a 40-gigabit QSFP port on one end that connections to four 10-gigabit SDFP +
ports on the other end.
B. it supports link lengths up to 40 km over single-mode fiber with duplex line card connectors.
C. It supports dedicated fabric-extender transceiver modules that connect to fabric links ( that I, links between a fabric
extender and a parent switch).
D. It enables the reuses of the existing 10-gigabit duplex MMF infrastructure for migration to 40 gigabit Ethernet
connectivity.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
What happens when there is no entry in the Layer 2 CAM table that corresponds to the destination MAC address of an
incoming frame?
A. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in all VLANs.
B. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN, except the port on which it is received.
C. The switch drops the frame.
D. The frame is flooded out of all forwarding ports in its VLAN, including the port on which it is received.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
When you enter the feature npv command on a storage-capable switch from Cisco, what is the result?
A. N-Port Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.
B. The switch reloads and erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-Port ID Virtualization.
C. The switch reloads and erases the current configuration before it enables the feature N-Port Virtualization.
D. N-Port ID Virtualization is enabled without rebooting.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. NP uplink ports connected to the core NPIV switch do not come online and are stuck in an
initializing state. Which options is a cause for this behavior?
A. The upstream NP Ports and the downstream server F Ports on the NPV edge switch may not be in the same VSA.
B. The core switch has not been enabled for NPIV.
C. The upstream VSAN ports and the server ports are in full duplex mode.
D. Related VSAN identifier is not allowed on Virtual Port Channels toward the edge switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding FIP in FCoE enabled Storage Area Networks?.
A. It discovers and initializes converged network capable devices connected to an Ethernet cloud.
B. it uses a dedicated EtherType of 0xFFFF.
C. it reduces the number of network interface cards required to connect to disparate storage and IP networks.
D. It reduces the number of cables and switches.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together?
A. N port
B. E port
C. F port
D. NL port
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which situation will cause a switch to flood traffic out all of the ports on the switch?
A. The switch receives a destination MAC address of 0000.0000.0000
B. The switch receives a destination MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff
C. The switch receives a source MAC address of 0000.0000.0000
D. The switch\\’s TCAM reaches the MAC address limit.
E. The switch was configured in cut-through mode.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which statement describes the uses of zones in a VSAN?
A. Zones are configured at the fabric core.
B. An HBA or storage device can only belong to zone.
C. Zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic.
D. Zones are a group of sports within a single VSAN.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
On which two components of a router can a copy of a running-configuration file be saved manually by an engineer for
backup purposes? (Choose two.)
A. NVRAM
B. Flash
C. ROM
D. RAM
E. DRAM
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 17
Which description of a multiple-initiator target zone is true?
A. It uses more TCAM than a single-initiator single target zone.
B. It increases the number of zones.
C. It uses less TCM space than a single-initiator target zone.
D. It blocks RSCNs between initiators.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. TCP frame
C. Ethernet packet
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which two naming formats are used to identify an iSCSI node? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. MAC
C. IPv6
D. IQN
E. EHA
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 21
Drag and drop the Ethernet UTP cable category on the left to the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer: 
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
What type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802 3 frame
B. TCP packet
C. UDP packet
D. Ethernet frame
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What native Fibre Channel technology facilitates connecting multiple Fibre devices behind a single FC address?
A. Fiber Channel over Ethernet
B. N-Port Virtualization
C. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
D. N-Port Identification Virtualization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
A network administrator is tasked with creating a switched virtual interface for VLAN 100 on a new Cisco Nexus switch.
Which two commands does the network administrator need? (Choose two.)
A. feature interface-vlan
B. interface vlan 100
C. feature private-vlan
D. interface 100
E. interface mgmt 100
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
You must attack a strong peripheral to a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch. Which type of port do you use?
A. E
B. F
C. TE
D. NP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
A network engineer is changing the boot process of a router from its original state to one that boots from ROMMON.
Which option in Cisco IOS should be changed?
A. config register number
B. RMON
C. bootflash settings
D. terminal history
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1
redundancy using Ml-Series line card?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which two statements about a sipne and-leaf data center design are true? (Choose two.)
A. The design is a three-tier architecture.
B. The design is a two-tier architecture.
C. A spine switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center de
D. All spine switches connect directly to one another.
E. A leaf switch corresponds to an access switch in a traditional data center design.
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
Interface mgmt 0ip address 10.9.1.20/24
ip access-list line_110 permit ip 10.1.0.0/16 any20 deny ip any any
ip access-list line_210 permit ip 10.1.1.1/32 any20 permit ip 10.9.1.2/32 any30 permit ip 10.200.200.0/24 any
line vtyaccess-class line_1 in access-class line_2 out
Which host can securely to the switch by using SSH?
A. 10.1.15
B. 10.200.200.1
C. 10.2.1.1
D. 10.9.1.2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF
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